SK0-005 Practice Test Questions

A server administrator needs to keep a copy of an important fileshare that can be used torestore the share as quickly as possible. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A. Copy the fileshare to an LTO-4 tape drive

B. Configure a new incremental backup job for the fileshare

C. Create an additional partition and move a copy of the fileshare

D. Create a snapshot of the fileshare

The best solution to keep a copy of an important fileshare that can be used to restore the share as quickly as possible is to create a snapshot of the fileshare. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a file system or a volume that captures the state and data of the fileshare at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the fileshare after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the fileshare to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.

An administrator is setting up a new server and has been asked to install an operating system that does not have a GUI because the server has limited resources. Which of the following installation options should the administrator use?

A. Bare metal

B. Headless

C. Virtualized

D. Slipstreamed

B. Headless

A headless installation is an installation method that does not require a graphical user interface (GUI) or a monitor, keyboard, and mouse. It can be done remotely through a network connection or a command-line interface. A headless installation is suitable for a server that has limited resources and does not need a GUI.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 14 Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management2, Module 2, Lesson 5

Users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address. All the user workstations receive their IP information from a DHCP server. Which of the following would be the best step to perform NEXT?

A. Run the tracert command from a workstation.

B. Examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists.

C. Correct the missing DHCP scope.

D. Update the workstation hosts file.

B. Examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists.

If users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address, it means that there is a problem with name resolution. The DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that maps hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. Therefore, the best step to perform next is to examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists and matches its IP address. If not, the DNS record needs to be added or updated accordingly. Running the tracert command from a workstation would not help with name resolution, as it only shows the route taken by packets to reach a destination by IP address. Correcting the missing DHCP scope would not help either, as DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) only assigns IP addresses and other network settings to clients, but does not resolve names. Updating the workstation hosts file would be a temporary workaround, but not a permanent solution, as it would require manually editing every workstation’s hosts file with the new server’s name and IP address. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/164981/how-to-use-nslookup-to-checkdomain-name-information-in-microsoft-windows/

https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/27350/beginner-geek-how-to-edit-your-hosts-file/

Which of the following often-overlooked parts of the asset life cycle can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to Pll exposure?

A. Usage

B. End-of-life

C. Procurement

D. Disposal

Disposal is the part of the asset life cycle that can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to PII exposure. PII stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. PII exposure is the unauthorized access or disclosure of PII, which can result in identity theft, fraud, or other harms to the individuals whose data is compromised. Disposal is the process of getting rid of an asset that is no longer needed or useful, such as a server, a hard drive, or a mobile device. If the disposal is not done properly, the PII stored on the asset may still be accessible or recoverable by unauthorized parties, such as hackers, thieves, or competitors. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices for secure disposal of assets that contain PII, such as wiping, encrypting, shredding, or physically destroying the data storage media

Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

A. Per socket

B. Perpetual

C. Subscription-based

D. Site-based

C. Subscription-based

Cloud software licensing refers to the process of managing and storing software licenses in the cloud. The benefits of cloud software licensing models are vast. The main and most attractive benefit has to do with the ease of use for software vendors and the ability to provide customizable cloud software license management based on customer needs and desires1. Cloud-based licensing gives software developers and vendors the opportunity to deliver software easily and quickly and gives customers full control over their licenses, their analytics, and more1. Cloud based licensing gives software sellers the ability to add subscription models to their roster of services1. Subscription models are one of the most popular forms of licensing today1. Users sign up for a subscription (often based on various options and levels of use, features, etc.) and receive their licenses instantly1. References: 1 Everything You Need to Know about Cloud Licensing | Thales

A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:

A. hardware is UEFI compliant

B. volume is formatted as GPT

C. volume is formatted as MBR

D. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives

B. volume is formatted as GPT

To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify that the volume is formatted as GPT. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that defines how data is organized on a hard disk drive (HDD) or a solid state drive (SSD). GPT uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions and supports up to 128 primary partitions per disk. GPT also supports disks larger than 2 TB and has a backup copy of the partition table at the end of the disk for data recovery. GPT is required for installing Windows on UEFI-based PCs, which offer faster boot time and better security than legacy BIOS-based PCs.

A server technician has been asked to upload a few files from the internal web server to the internal FTP server. The technician logs in to the web server using PuTTY, but the connection to the FTP server fails. However, the FTP connection from the technician’s workstation is sucessful. To troubleshoot the issue, the technician executes the following command on both the web server and the workstation: ping ftp.acme.local The IP address in the command output is different on each machine. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the connection failure?

A. A misconfigured firewall

B. A misconfigured hosts.deny file

C. A misconfigured hosts file

D. A misconfigured hosts.allow file

A misconfigured hosts file can cause name resolution issues on a server. A hosts file is a text file that maps hostnames to IP addresses on a local system. It can be used to override DNS settings or provide custom name resolution for testing purposes. However, if the hosts file contains incorrect or outdated entries, it can prevent the system from resolving hostnames properly and cause connectivity problems. To fix this issue, the administrator should check and edit the hosts file accordingly.

storage engineer responds to an alarm on a storage array and finds the battery on the RAID controller needs to be replaced. However, the replacement part will not be available for 14 days. The engineer needs to identify the impact of the failed battery on the system. Which of the following best describes the impact?

A. The read and write performance will be impacted.

B. The read performance will be impacted.

C. The performance will not be impacted.

D. The write performance will be impacted.

A RAID controller battery is used to protect the data in the cache memory of the controller in case of a power failure. The cache memory allows the controller to improve the write performance by buffering the data and writing it to the disk in an optimized way. However, if the battery fails, the controller will switch to write-through mode, which means it will write the data directly to the disk without caching. This will reduce the write performance and increase the latency of the system

A security manager is concerned that a rogue employee could boot a server from an outside USB drive. Which of the following actions can be taken to reduce this risk? (Select TWO).

A. Close unneeded ports.

B. Disable unneeded physical ports.

C. Set a BIOS password.

D. Install a SIEM.

E. Disable unneeded services.

F. Install a HIDS

B. Disable unneeded physical ports.

C. Set a BIOS password.

Disabling unneeded physical ports would prevent unauthorized devices from being connected to the server, such as an outside USB drive. Setting a BIOS password would restrict access to the boot settings and prevent unauthorized changes to the boot order. The other options would not address the risk of booting from an outside USB drive

Which of the following should a technician verify first before decommissioning and wiping a file server?

A. The media destruction method

B. The recycling policy

C. Asset management documentation

D. Document retention policy

C. Asset management documentation

Before decommissioning and wiping a file server, it's crucial to verify the asset management documentation. This documentation provides detailed records of the server's lifecycle, including procurement, usage, maintenance, and decommissioning information. Ensuring that asset management documentation is up-to-date and accurate is essential before proceeding with the server's decommissioning to maintain proper inventory control, comply with regulatory and organizational policies, and facilitate any potential audits. While the media destruction method, recycling policy, and document retention policy are important considerations in the decommissioning process, verifying asset management documentation is the first step to ensure the server is correctly identified and accounted for in the organization's asset registry.

A server administrator is using remote access to update a server. The administrator notices numerous error messages when using YUM to update the applications on a server. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?

A. Network connectivity on the server

B. LVM status on the server

C. Disk space in the /var directory

D. YUM dependencies

C. Disk space in the /var directory

Explanation:

The administrator should check disk space in the /var directory first when using YUM to update applications on a server. YUM stands for Yellowdog Updater Modified, which is a software package manager for Linux systems that use RPM (Red Hat Package Manager) packages. YUM downloads and installs packages from online repositories and resolves dependencies automatically. YUM stores its cache files in the /var/cache/yum directory by default. These cache files include metadata and package data for each repository that YUM uses. If there is not enough disk space in the /var directory, YUM may fail to update applications and generate error messages.

A server administrator wants to ensure a storage array can survive the failure of two drives without the loss of data. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator choose?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 6

Explanation:

RAID 6 is a level of RAID that can survive the failure of two drives without the loss of data. RAID 6 uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures and still provide data access and redundancy. RAID 0 is a level of RAID that uses striping without parity or mirroring, and offers no fault tolerance. RAID 0 cannot survive any drive failure without data loss. RAID 1 is a level of RAID that uses mirroring without parity or striping, and offers fault tolerance by duplicating data on two or more disks. RAID 1 can survive one drive failure without data loss, but not two. RAID 5 is a level of RAID that uses block-level striping with one parity block distributed across all member disks. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two.

References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels