After new capabilities were deployed in a system, issues with preexisting capabilities were reported. Which of the following testing cycles should be used to prevent this issue?
A. Performance testing
B. User acceptance testing
C. Stress testing
D. Unit testing
Explanation: Unit testing is a testing technique that verifies the functionality and quality of individual units or components of software, such as modules, classes, functions, etc. Unit testing can help prevent issues with preexisting capabilities by detecting and fixing errors at an early stage of development, before they affect the integration and system testing. Unit testing can also ensure that new capabilities do not break or interfere with the existing ones, by checking the compatibility and dependencies of the units. Unit testing can be performed by developers using tools and frameworks that automate the process and generate reports.
During a status meeting, the development team reviews work and finds an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities. As a result, the project will most likely be delayed. Which of the following actions should the project manager MOST likely perform?
A. Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline.
B. Communicate to the stakeholders about the updated timeline.
C. Ask the development team to fast-track upcoming activities.
D. Add two resources so the critical activities will finish on time.
Explanation: Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline. The project manager should work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline after finding an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical project activities that will most likely cause a delay. The project scheduler is a person or a tool that helps plan, schedule, monitor, and control the project activities and resources. The project scheduler can help the project manager to assess the impact of the dependency on the project schedule and identify any possible ways to mitigate or resolve it. The project scheduler can also help to update the project timeline with the revised dates and durations of the project activities and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
Which of the following would be best to utilize when managing communications for project teams across multiple time zones?
A. Business collaboration tool
B. Email
C. Virtual meetings
D. Enterprise CMS
Explanation: A business collaboration tool is a software that enables teams to communicate, share, and create together online. A business collaboration tool can help project teams across multiple time zones to overcome the challenges of distance, time differences, and cultural diversity. A business collaboration tool can provide features such as instant messaging, video conferencing, file sharing, document editing, project management, and more. A business collaboration tool can also integrate with other applications and platforms that the project team uses. A business collaboration tool can improve the efficiency, productivity, and quality of the project team’s work12.
Which of the following is required to provide a hardware installation with a Tier 5 redundancy level?
A. Storage project
B. Computer services project
C. Database project
D. Multitiered architecture project
A project manager will conduct a release on the third Friday of the month. The project manager has notified users that the application will be unavailable for eight hours. Hence, users need to save any information in advance. Which of the following is the project manager most likely conducting?
A. Application deployment
B. Rollback plans
C. Validation checks
D. Maintenance window schedules
Explanation: Application deployment typically involves making a software application available for use, often involving downtime or unavailability of the application. The description of the project manager notifying users about the application being unavailable for a certain period aligns with standard practices during deployment phases. The other options, such as rollback plans, validation checks, and maintenance window schedules, although important, do not directly indicate the action of making an application available for use, as described in the scenario.
Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll?
A. Medical record and test result values
B. IP address and email address
C. Name and year of birth
D. X-ray and blood type
Explanation: Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific
individual. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Security, page 331. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Security, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, apply security best practices to a project, Sub-objective: Identify and classify Pll.
Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of the defects. Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause?
A. Kanban board
B. Pareto chart
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Decision tree
A project manager will conduct a release on the third Friday of the month. The project
manager has notified users that the application will be unavailable for eight hours. Hence,
users need to save any information in advance. Which of the following is the project
manager most likely conducting?
Which of the following should occur when implementing an IT infrastructure change that
takes risks into consideration?
A. Approving the change request
B. Developing a rollback plan
C. Gathering necessary resources
D. Defining requirements
Explanation: When implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into
consideration, the project manager should develop a rollback plan. A rollback plan is a
contingency plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken in case the change does not
work as expected. It includes a plan to roll back the changes and restore the system to its
previous state.
The project manager should develop a rollback plan when implementing an IT
infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration. A rollback plan is a contingency
plan that describes how to revert back to the previous state of the system in case of a
failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize
the impact of the change on the system performance and availability and ensure business
continuity and data integrity.
During a brainstorming session, a team member expressed concerns that solar flares could cause intermittent outages for those individuals working on the project. Which of the following would be the best tool to communicate this information to stakeholders?
A. Status report
B. Issue log
C. Risk report
D. Risk register
Explanation: A risk register is used to document potential risks, including causes and impacts. This tool is essential for tracking and communicating project risks to stakeholders, as recommended by CompTIA Project+ for risk management.
Which of the following would be the NEXT document a project manager should update once the need to procure goods and/or services is identified?
A. Memorandum of understanding
B. Request for information
C. Statement of work
D. Non-disclosure agreement
A developer focused on a single story during an entire sprint. The story was underestimated and, therefore, was not completed. Which of the following steps should the Scrum team take next?
A. Assign more resources to complete similar stories in the future.
B. Break the stories into workable items that can be completed within one sprint.
C. Extend the sprint duration when required with the approval of the product owner.
D. Release the current progress into production and carry over the rest of the code for the next sprint.
Explanation: The Scrum team should break the stories into workable items that can be completed within one sprint, which is a time-boxed period of 7 to 30 days, during which the team delivers a potentially releasable product increment. Breaking the stories into smaller and more manageable items can help the team to estimate them more accurately, plan them more effectively, and deliver them more reliably. Breaking the stories also aligns with the agile principle of delivering working software frequently and satisfying the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software. The other options are not the best steps for the Scrum team to take next. Assigning more resources to complete similar stories in the future may not solve the problem of underestimation, and may introduce additional complexity and communication overhead. Extending the sprint duration when required with the approval of the product owner may compromise the consistency and predictability of the Scrum process, and may delay the feedback and validation from the stakeholders. Releasing the current progress into production and carrying over the rest of the code for the next sprint may result in an incomplete or unstable product increment, and may violate the definition of done, which is a shared understanding of the quality criteria that the product increment must meet.
An organization was fined due to an audit finding that revealed a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system. Which of the following was the cause of this situation?
A. The ticket system provided access by default without any approval.
B. The project manager did not perform proper project planning.
C. The system is lacking proper access controls.
D. Sensitive data was incorrectly classified during the audit process.
Explanation: The system is lacking proper access controls if a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information in a recently implemented system that resulted in a fine for the organization. Access controls are security mechanisms that regulate who or what can view, use, or modify data or resources in a system or network. Access controls typically involve authentication and authorization processes that verify the identity and permissions of users or devices before granting them access. Access controls can help to protect data confidentiality, integrity, and availability and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft12
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