A company wants to implement a disaster recovery site or non-critical applicance, which can tolerance a short period of downltime. Which of the followig type of sites should the company impelement to achive this goal?
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Warm
D. Passive
Explanation:
A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site, providing a balance between cost and recovery time. It is partially equipped with the necessary hardware, software, and infrastructure, allowing for a quicker recovery compared to a cold site but at a lower cost than a hot site.
Recovery Time: Warm sites can be operational within hours to a day, making them suitable for non-critical applications that can tolerate short downtimes.
Cost-Effectiveness: Warm sites are more economical than hot sites as they do not require all systems to be fully operational at all times.
Network References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses disaster recovery strategies and the different types of recovery sites.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on disaster recovery planning and site selection.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the characteristics of hot, warm, and cold sites and their use cases in disaster recovery planning.
Warm sites offer a practical solution for maintaining business continuity for non-critical applications, balancing the need for availability with cost considerations.
Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?
A. IS-IS
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Explanation: BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.
Which of the following attacks utilizes a network packet that contains multiple network tags?
A. MAC flooding
B. VLAN hopping
C. DNS spoofing
D. ARP poisoning
Explanation:
VLAN hopping is an attack where an attacker crafts packets with multiple VLAN tags, allowing them to traverse VLAN boundaries improperly. This can result in gaining unauthorized access to network segments that are supposed to be isolated. The other options do not involve the use of multiple network tags. MAC flooding aims to overwhelm a switch’s MAC address table, DNS spoofing involves forging DNS responses, and ARP poisoning involves sending fake ARP messages.
[Reference:, According to the CompTIA Network+ course materials, VLAN hopping exploits the tagging mechanism in network packets to gain unauthorized access., , ]
Which of the following technologies are X.509 certificates most commonly associated with?
A. PKI
B. VLAN tagging
C. LDAP
D. MFA
Explanation:
X.509 certificates are most commonly associated with Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). These certificates are used for a variety of security functions, including digital signatures, encryption, and authentication.
PKI: X.509 certificates are a fundamental component of PKI, used to manage encryption keys and authenticate users and devices.
Digital Certificates: They are used to establish secure communications over networks, such as SSL/TLS for websites and secure email communication.
Authentication and Encryption: X.509 certificates provide the means to securely exchange keys and verify identities in various applications, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality.
Network References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers PKI and the role of X.509 certificates in network security.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on PKI, certificates, and secure communications.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains PKI, X.509 certificates, and their applications in securing network communications.
An organization wants to ensure that incoming emails were sent from a trusted source. Which of the following DNS records is used to verify the source?
A. TXT
B. AAAA
C. CNAME
D. MX
Explanation: Explanation: A TXT record can be used to store SPF (Sender Policy Framework) and DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) information, which help verify that an email has been sent from a trusted source.
A user's VoIP phone and workstation are connected through an inline cable. The user reports that the VoIP phone intermittently reboots, but the workstation is not having any network-related issues Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The PoE power budget is exceeded.
B. Port security is violated.
C. The signal is degraded
D. The Ethernet cable is not working
Explanation: Power over Ethernet (PoE) delivers power to devices such as VoIP phones over the same cables used for data. If the total power requirement of connected devices exceeds the PoE power budget of the switch or injector, some devices may not receive adequate power and could intermittently reboot. This issue would not affect the workstation, which is likely receiving power separately. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
Users cannot connect to an internal website with an IP address 10.249.3.76. A network administrator runs a command and receives the following output:
1 3ms 2ms 3ms 192.168.25.234
2 2ms 3ms 1ms 192.168.3.100
3 4ms 5ms 2ms 10.249.3.1
4 *
5 ’
6 *
7 •
Which of the following command-line tools is the network administrator using?
A. tracert
B. netstat
C. tcpdump
D. nmap
Explanation:
Understanding Tracert:
tracert (Traceroute in Windows) is a command-line tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It records the route (the specific gateways at each hop) and measures transit delays of packets across an IP network.
Output Analysis:
The output shows a series of IP addresses with corresponding round-trip times (RTTs) in milliseconds.
The asterisks (*) indicate that no response was received from those hops, which is typical for routers or firewalls that block ICMP packets used by tracert.
Comparison with Other Tools:
netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace packet routes.
tcpdump: Captures network packets for analysis, used for detailed network traffic inspection.
nmap: A network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a network, not for tracing packet routes.
Usage:
tracert helps identify the path to a destination and locate points of failure or congestion in the network.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network troubleshooting and diagnostic tools.
A network engineer is designing a secure communication link between two sites. The entire data stream needs to remain confidential. Which of the following will achieve this goal?
A. GRE
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. AH
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite designed to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data by encrypting the payload and optional ESP trailer.
Ensuring Confidentiality:
Encryption: ESP encrypts the payload, ensuring that the data remains confidential during transmission. Only authorized parties with the correct decryption keys can access the data.
Modes of Operation: ESP can operate in transport mode (encrypts only the payload) or tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet), both providing strong encryption to secure data between sites.
Comparison with Other Protocols:
GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption or security features.
IKE (Internet Key Exchange): A protocol used to set up a secure, authenticated communications channel, but it does not encrypt the data itself.
AH (Authentication Header): Provides integrity and authentication for IP packets but does not encrypt the payload.
Implementation:
Use ESP as part of an IPsec VPN configuration to encrypt and secure communication between two sites. This involves setting up IPsec policies and ensuring both endpoints are configured to use ESP for data encryption.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and secure communication protocols.
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
A. 172.16.0.0/24
B. 192.168.0.0/24
C. 224.0.0.0/24
D. 240.0.0.0/24
Explanation:
Understanding Multicast:
Multicast IP Address Range: The multicast address range is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, designated for multicast traffic.
Multicast Applications:
Use Case: Multicast is used for one-to-many or many-to-many communication, suitable for applications like audio and video broadcasting where the same data is sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.
Appropriate Network Selection:
224.0.0.0/24 Network: This range is reserved for multicast addresses, making it the appropriate choice for setting up a multicast network.
Comparison with Other Options:
172.16.0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for multicast.
192.168.0.0/24: Another private IP address range, also not for multicast.
240.0.0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP address ranges and multicast.
Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Explanation: EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has a default administrative distance (AD) value of 90 for internal routes. The administrative distance is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received from different routing protocols. EIGRP, developed by Cisco, has an AD of 90, which is lower than that of RIP (120) and OSPF (110), making it more preferred if multiple protocols provide a route to the same destination.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?
A. GDPR
B. SCADA
C. SAML
D. PCI DSS
Explanation:
Definition of GDPR:
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
Scope and Objectives:
GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.
It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.
Comparison with Other Options:
SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.
SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.
Key Provisions:
GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on regulatory and compliance standards.
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
A. Neighbor adjacency
B. Link state flooding
C. Administrative distance
D. Hop count
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
Verification:
After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
References:
CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
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