CSSLP Practice Test Questions

348 Questions


Topic 1: Volume A

In which of the following alternative processing sites is the backup facility maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility? 


A.

Cold Site


B.

Hot Site


C.

Warm Site 


D.

Mobile Site





B.
  

Hot Site



Explanation: A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. It provides the backup facility, which is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility. A hot site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. A hot site is located off site and provides the best protection. It is an exact replica of the current data center. In case a disaster struck to the data center, administrators just need to take the backup of recent data in hot site and the data center is back online in a very short time. It is very expensive to create and maintain the hot site. There are lots of third party companies that provide disaster recovery solutions by maintaining hot sites at their end. Answer: A is incorrect. A cold site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. This is the least expensive disaster recovery solution, usually having only a single room with no equipment. All equipment is brought to the site after the disaster. It can be on site or off site. Answer: D is incorrect. Mobile sites are self-reliant, portable shells custom-fitted with definite telecommunications and IT equipment essential to meet system requirements. These are presented for lease through commercial vendors. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is, quite logically, a compromise between hot and cold sites. Warm sites will have hardware and connectivity already established, though on a smaller scale than the original production site or even a hot site. These sites will have backups on hand, but they may not be complete and may be between several days and a week old. An example would be backup tapes sent to the warm site by courier.

Which of the following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. 


A.

Editor


B.

Custodian


C.

Owner 


D.

User  


E.

Security auditor





B.
  

Custodian



C.
  

Owner 



D.
  

User  



E.
  

Security auditor



Explanation: The following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program: Owner Custodian User Security auditor The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to the custodian. The following are the responsibilities of the custodian with regard to data in an information classification program: Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary Controlling access, adding and removing privileges for individual users The users must comply with the requirements laid out in policies and procedures. They must also exercise due care. A security auditor examines an organization's security procedures and mechanisms.

Which of the following testing methods verifies the interfaces between components against a software design?


A.

Regression testing


B.

Integration testing


C.

Black-box testing


D.

Unit testing





B.
  

Integration testing



Explanation: Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system. Answer: A is incorrect. Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Answer: D is incorrect. Unit testing refers to tests that verify the functionality of a specific section of code, usually at the function level. In an object-oriented environment, this is usually at the class level, and the minimal unit tests include the constructors and destructors. These types of tests are usually written by developers as they work on code (white-box style), to ensure that the specific function is working as expected. One function might have multiple tests, to catch corner cases or other branches in the code. Unit testing alone cannot verify the functionality of a piece of software, but rather is used to assure that the building blocks the software uses work independently of each other. Answer: C is incorrect. The black-box testing uses external descriptions of the software, including specifications, requirements, and design to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional. The test designer selects valid and invalid inputs and determines the correct output. There is no knowledge of the test object's internal structure. This method of test design is applicable to all levels of software testing: unit, integration, functional testing, system and acceptance. The higher the level, and hence the bigger and more complex the box, the more one is forced to use black box testing to simplify. While this method can uncover unimplemented parts of the specification, one cannot be sure that all existent paths are tested.

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?


A.

Qualitative risk analysis


B.

Historical information


C.

Rolling wave planning


D.

Quantitative analysis





A.
  

Qualitative risk analysis



Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis is the best answer as it is a fast and low-cost approach to analyze the risk impact and its effect. It can promote certain risks onto risk response planning. Qualitative Risk Analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. Qualitative Risk Analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or Risk Response Plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a concern to impact on the project's scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. The qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process are: Organizational process assets Project Scope Statement Risk Management Plan Risk Register Answer: B is incorrect. Historical information can be helpful in the qualitative risk analysis, but it is not the best answer for the question as historical information is not always available (consider new projects). Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis is in-depth and often requires a schedule and budget for the analysis. Answer: C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is not a valid answer for risk analysis processes. 

Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge 


B.

Verify and Validate Security  


C.

Manage Project Risk 


D.

Improve Organization's System Engineering Process





A.
  

Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge 



C.
  

Manage Project Risk 



D.
  

Improve Organization's System Engineering Process



Explanation: Project and Organizational Practices include the following process areas: PA12: Ensure Quality PA13: Manage Configuration PA14: Manage Project Risk PA15: Monitor and Control Technical Effort PA16: Plan Technical Effort PA17: Define Organization's System Engineering Process PA18: Improve Organization's System Engineering Process PA19: Manage Product Line Evolution PA20: Manage Systems Engineering Support Environment PA21: Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge PA22: Coordinate with Suppliers 

Which of the following tools is used to attack the Digital Watermarking?


A.

Steg-Only Attack 


B.

Active Attacks


C.

2Mosaic


D.

Gifshuffle





C.
  

2Mosaic



Explanation: 2Mosaic is a tool used for watermark breaking. It is an attack against a digital watermarking system. In this type of attack, an image is chopped into small pieces and then placed together. When this image is embedded into a web page, the web browser renders the small pieces into one image. This image looks like a real image with no watermark in it. This attack is successful, as it is impossible to read watermark in very small pieces. Answer: D is incorrect. Gifshuffle is used to hide message or information inside GIF images. It is done by shuffling the colormap. This tool also provides compression and encryption. Answer: B and A are incorrect. Active Attacks and Steg-Only Attacks are used to attack Steganography

Della works as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to establish configuration management and control procedures that will document proposed or actual changes to the information system. Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology will define the above task?


A.

Initiation


B.

Security Certification 


C.

Continuous Monitoring


D.

Security Accreditation





C.
  

Continuous Monitoring



Explanation: The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

Which of the following software review processes increases the software security by removing the common vulnerabilities, such as format string exploits, race conditions, memory leaks, and buffer overflows? 


A.

Management review


B.

Code review


C.

Peer review  


D.

Software audit review





B.
  

Code review



Explanation: A code review is a systematic examination of computer source code, which searches and resolves issues occurred in the initial development phase. It increases the software security by removing common vulnerabilities, such as format string exploits, race conditions, memory leaks, and buffer overflows. A code review is performed in the following forms: Pair programming Informal walkthrough Formal inspection Answer: C is incorrect. A peer review is an examination process in which author and one or more colleagues examine a work product, such as document, code, etc., and evaluate technical content and quality. According to the Capability Maturity Model, peer review offers a systematic engineering practice in order to detect and resolve issues occurring in the software artifacts, and stops the leakage into field operations. Answer: A is incorrect. Management review is a management study into a project's status and allocation of resources. Answer: D is incorrect. In software audit review one or more auditors, who are not members of the software development organization, perform an independent examination of a software product, software process, or a set of software processes for assessing compliance with specifications, standards, contractual agreements, or other specifications.

Martha registers a domain named Microsoft.in. She tries to sell it to Microsoft Corporation. The infringement of which of the following has she made? 


A.

Copyright 


B.

Trademark 


C.

Patent 


D.

Intellectual propert





B.
  

Trademark 



Explanation: According to the Lanham Act, domain names fall under trademarks law. A new section 43(d) of the Trademark Act (Lanham Act) states that anyone who in bad faith registers, traffics in, or uses a domain name that infringes or dilutes another's trademark has committed trademark infringement. Factors involved in assessing bad faith focus on activities typically associated with cyberpiracy or cybersquatting, such as whether the registrant has offered to sell the domain name to the trademark holder for financial gain without having used or intended to use it for a bona fide business; whether the domain- name registrant registered multiple domain names that are confusingly similar to the trademarks of others; and whether the trademark incorporated in the domain name is distinctive and famous. Other factors are whether the domain name consists of the legal name or common handle of the domain-name registrant and whether the domain-name registrant previously used the mark in connection with a bona fide business.

You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?


A.

Residual risk


B.

Secondary risk


C.

Detection risk


D.

Inherent risk 





C.
  

Detection risk



Explanation: Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means "the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder". Answer: D is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: B is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly. 

Which of the following access control models are used in the commercial sector? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. 


A.

Biba model


B.

Clark-Biba model


C.

Clark-Wilson model 


D.

Bell-LaPadula model





A.
  

Biba model



C.
  

Clark-Wilson model 



Explanation: The Biba and Clark-Wilson access control models are used in the commercial sector. The Biba model is a formal state transition system of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject. The Clark-Wilson security model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. Answer: D is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula access control model is mainly used in military systems. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Clark-Biba. 

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) provides a common modeling notation to address alignment between business and IT organizations. Which of the following principles does the SOMF concentrate on? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. 


A.

Architectural components abstraction 


B.

SOA value proposition 


C.

Business traceability


D.

Disaster recovery planning  


E.

Software assets reuse 





A.
  

Architectural components abstraction 



B.
  

SOA value proposition 



C.
  

Business traceability



E.
  

Software assets reuse 



Explanation: The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) concentrates on the following principles: Business traceability Architectural best-practices traceability Technological traceability SOA value proposition Software assets reuse SOA integration strategies Technological abstraction and generalization Architectural components abstraction Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) does not concentrate on it.


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