CSSLP Practice Test Questions

348 Questions


Topic 1: Volume A

You and your project team have identified the project risks and now are analyzing the probability and impact of the risks. What type of analysis of the risks provides a quick and high-level review of each identified risk event?


A.

Quantitative risk analysis  


B.

Qualitative risk analysis  


C.

Seven risk responses


D.

A risk probability-impact matrix 





B.
  

Qualitative risk analysis  



Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for additional analysis.

Which of the following ensures that a party to a dispute cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated?


A.

Confidentiality 


B.

OS fingerprinting


C.

Reconnaissance 


D.

Non-repudiation





D.
  

Non-repudiation



Explanation: Non-repudiation is a term that refers to the ability to ensure that a party to a dispute cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated. Non-repudiation is the concept of ensuring that a party in a dispute cannot refuse to acknowledge, or refute the validity of a statement or contract. As a service, it provides proof of the integrity and origin of data. Although this concept can be applied to any transmission, including television and radio, by far the most common application is in the verification and trust of signatures. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality is a mechanism that ensures that only the intended and authorized recipients are able to read data. The data is so encrypted that even if an unauthorized user gets access to it, he will not get any meaning out of it. Answer: C is incorrect. Reconnaissance is a term that refers to information gathering behaviors that aim to profile the organization, employees, network, and systems before an attack is performed efficiently. It is the first step in the process of intrusion and involves unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities. These discovery and mapping techniques are commonly known as scanning and enumeration. Common tools, commands, and utilities used for scanning and enumeration include ping, telnet, nslookup, rpcinfo, File Explorer, finger, etc. Reconnaissance activities take place before performing a malicious attack. These activities are used to increase the probability of successful operation against the target, and to increase the probability of hiding the attacker's identity. Answer: B is incorrect. OS fingerprinting is a process in which an external host sends special traffic on the external network interface of a computer to determine the computer's operating system. It is one of the primary steps taken by hackers in preparing an attack. 

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

Negotiation 


B.

Registration


C.

Document mission need


D.

Initial Certification Analysis 





A.
  

Negotiation 



B.
  

Registration



C.
  

Document mission need



Explanation: The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: D is incorrect. Initial Certification Analysis is a Phase 2 activity. 

Which of the following NIST Special Publication documents provides a guideline on network security testing?


A.

NIST SP 800-42


B.

NIST SP 800-53A


C.

NIST SP 800-60 


D.

NIST SP 800-53


E.

NIST SP 800-37


F.

NIST SP 800-59 





A.
  

NIST SP 800-42



Explanation: NIST SP 800-42 provides a guideline on network security testing. Answer: E, D, B, F, and C are incorrect. NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels. 

Which of the following life cycle modeling activities establishes service relationships and message exchange paths?


A.

Service-oriented logical design modeling


B.

Service-oriented conceptual architecture modelin


C.

Service-oriented discovery and analysis modeling  


D.

Service-oriented business integration modeling 





A.
  

Service-oriented logical design modeling



Explanation: The service-oriented logical design modeling establishes service relationships and message exchange paths. It also addresses service visibility and crafts service logical compositions. 

An asset with a value of $600,000 is subject to a successful malicious attack threat twice a year. The asset has an exposure of 30 percent to the threat. What will be the annualized loss expectancy?


A.

$360,000 


B.

$180,000


C.

$280,000


D.

$540,000





A.
  

$360,000 



Explanation: The annualized loss expectancy will be $360,000. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as follows:   
ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)  Here, it is as follows:  SLE = Asset value * EF (Exposure factor)  = 600,000 * (30/100)  = 600,000 * 0.30  = 180,000  ALE = SLE * ARO  = 180,000 * 2 = 360,000  Answer: C, B, and D are incorrect. These are not valid answers

The IAM/CA makes certification accreditation recommendations to the DAA. The DAA issues accreditation determinations. Which of the following are the accreditation determinations issued by the DAA? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply


A.

IATT


B.

IATO 


C.

DATO


D.

ATO


E.

ATT





A.
  

IATT



B.
  

IATO 



C.
  

DATO



D.
  

ATO



Explanation: The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process, store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer: E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.

What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

Develop software requirements. 


B.

Implement change control procedures.


C.

Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.


D.

Create acquisition strategy. 





A.
  

Develop software requirements. 



C.
  

Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.



D.
  

Create acquisition strategy. 



Explanation: The various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process are as follows: Determine software product or service requirements. Identify associated risks. Develop software requirements. Create acquisition strategy. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan. Define development and use of SwA due diligence questionnaires. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed in the monitoring and acceptance phase of the Software Assurance acquisition process.

Bill is the project manager of the JKH Project. He and the project team have identified a risk event in the project with a high probability of occurrence and the risk event has a high cost impact on the project. Bill discusses the risk event with Virginia, the primary project customer, and she decides that the requirements surrounding the risk event should be removed from the project. The removal of the requirements does affect the project scope, but it can release the project from the high risk exposure. What risk response has been enacted in this project? 


A.

Mitigation 


B.

Transference 


C.

Acceptance


D.

Avoidance 





D.
  

Avoidance 



Explanation: This is an example of the avoidance risk response. Because the project plan has been changed to avoid the risk event, so it is considered the avoidance risk response. Risk avoidance is a technique used for threats. It creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk completely or to protect the project objectives from its impact. Risk avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope requirements. It may seem the answer to all possible risks, but avoiding risks also means losing out on the potential gains that accepting (retaining) the risk might have allowed. Answer: C is incorrect. Acceptance is when the stakeholders acknowledge the risk event and they accept that the event could happen and could have an impact on the project. Acceptance is usually used for risk events that have low risk exposure or risk events in which the project has no control, such as a pending law or weather threats. Answer: A is incorrect. Mitigation is involved with the actions to reduce an included risk's probability and/or impact on the project's objectives. As the risk was removed from the project, this scenario describes avoidance, not mitigation. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is when the risk is still within the project, but the ownership and management of the risk event is transferred to a third party - usually for a fee.

Which of the following actions does the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) technology take when an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

It creates an alert. 


B.

It quarantines the file to a secure location.


C.

It reconstructs the session.


D.

It blocks the transmission of content. 





A.
  

It creates an alert. 



B.
  

It quarantines the file to a secure location.



D.
  

It blocks the transmission of content. 



Explanation: When an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states, the Data Loss prevention (DLP) technology takes one of the following actions: It creates an alert. It notifies an administrator of a violation. It quarantines the file to a secure location. It encrypts the file. It blocks the transmission of content. Answer: C is incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) reconstructs the session when data is in motion.

You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following tools will you use to look outside your own organization to examine how others achieve their performance levels, and what processes they use to reach those levels?


A.

Benchmarking  


B.

Six Sigma 


C.

ISO 9001:2000


D.

SEI-CMM 





A.
  

Benchmarking  



Explanation: Benchmarking is the tool used by system assessment process to provide a point of reference by which performance measurements can be reviewed with respect to other organizations. Benchmarking is also recognized as Best Practice Benchmarking or Process Benchmarking. It is a process used in management and mostly useful for strategic management. It is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality to another that is widely considered to be an industry standard benchmark or best practice. It allows organizations to develop plans on how to implement best practice with the aim of increasing some aspect of performance. Benchmarking might be a one-time event, although it is frequently treated as a continual process in which organizations continually seek out to challenge their practices. It allows organizations to develop plans on how to make improvements or adapt specific best practices, usually with the aim of increasing some aspect of performance. Answer: C is incorrect. The ISO 9001:2000 standard combines the three standards 9001, 9002, and 9003 into one, called 9001. Design and development procedures are required only if a company does in fact engage in the creation of new products. The 2000 version sought to make a radical change in thinking by actually placing the concept of process management front and center ("Process management" was the monitoring and optimizing of a company's tasks and activities, instead of just inspecting the final product). The ISO 9001:2000 version also demands involvement by upper executives, in order to integrate quality into the business system and avoid delegation of quality functions to junior administrators. Another goal is to improve effectiveness via process performance metrics numerical measurement of the effectiveness of tasks and activities. Expectations of continual process improvement and tracking customer satisfaction were made explicit. Answer: B is incorrect. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, initially implemented by Motorola. As of 2009 it enjoys widespread application in many sectors of industry, although its application is not without controversy. Six Sigma seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the causes of defects and variability in manufacturing and business processes. It uses a set of quality management methods, including statistical methods, and creates a special infrastructure of people within the organization ("Black Belts", "Green Belts", etc.) who are experts in these methods. Each Six Sigma project carried out within an organization follows a defined sequence of steps and has quantified financial targets (cost reduction or profit increase). The often used Six Sigma symbol is as follows: 

Answer: D is incorrect. Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) was created by Software Engineering Institute (SEI). CMMI in software engineering and organizational development is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement. It can be used to guide process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization. CMMI can help integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. CMMI is now the de facto standard for measuring the maturity of any process. Organizations can be assessed against the CMMI model using Standard CMMI Appraisal Method for Process Improvement (SCAMPI).

DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability? 


A.

MAC III 


B.

MAC IV


C.

MAC I


D.

MAC II 





D.
  

MAC II 



Explanation: The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability. 


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