CAS-005 Practice Test Questions

103 Questions


Asecuntv administrator is performing a gap assessment against a specific OS benchmark The benchmark requires the following configurations be applied to endpomts:

• Full disk encryption
* Host-based firewall
• Time synchronization
* Password policies
• Application allow listing
* Zero Trust application access
Which of the following solutions best addresses the requirements? (Select two).


A. CASB


B. SBoM


C. SCAP


D. SASE


E. HIDS





C.
  SCAP

D.
  SASE

To address the specific OS benchmark configurations, the following solutions are most appropriate:
C. SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): SCAP helps in automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, including configurations like full disk encryption, host-based firewalls, and password policies.
D. SASE (Secure Access Service Edge): SASE provides a framework for Zero Trust network access and application allow listing, ensuring secure and compliant access to applications and data.
These solutions together cover the comprehensive security requirements specified in the OS benchmark, ensuring a robust security posture for endpoints.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses SCAP and SASE as part of security configuration management and Zero Trust architectures. NIST Special Publication 800-126, "The Technical Specification for the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)": Details SCAP's role in security automation.
"Zero Trust Networks: Building Secure Systems in Untrusted Networks" by Evan Gilman and Doug Barth: Covers the principles of Zero Trust and how SASE can implement them. By implementing SCAP and SASE, the organization ensures that all the specified security configurations are applied and maintained effectively.

A company wants to install a three-tier approach to separate the web. database, and application servers A security administrator must harden the environment which of the following is the best solution?


A. Deploying a VPN to prevent remote locations from accessing server VLANs


B. Configuring a SASb solution to restrict users to server communication


C. Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs


D. installing a firewall and making it the network core





C.
  Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs

The best solution to harden a three-tier environment (web, database, and application servers) is to implement microsegmentation on the server VLANs. Here’s why: Enhanced Security: Microsegmentation creates granular security zones within the data center, allowing for more precise control over east-west traffic between servers. This helps prevent lateral movement by attackers who may gain access to one part of the network.
Isolation of Tiers: By segmenting the web, database, and application servers, the organization can apply specific security policies and controls to each segment, reducing the risk of cross-tier attacks. Compliance and Best Practices: Microsegmentation aligns with best practices for network security and helps meet compliance requirements by ensuring that
sensitive data and systems are properly isolated and protected.
References:

A company detects suspicious activity associated with external connections Security detection tools are unable to categorize this activity. Which of the following is the best solution to help the company overcome this challenge?


A. Implement an Interactive honeypot


B. Map network traffic to known loCs


C. Monitor the dark web


D. implement UEBA





D.
  implement UEBA

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to help the company overcome challenges associated with suspicious activity that cannot be categorized by traditional detection tools. UEBA uses advanced analytics to establish baselines of normal

Users must accept the terms presented in a captive petal when connecting to a guest network. Recently, users have reported that they are unable to access the Internet after joining the network A network engineer observes the following:

• Users should be redirected to the captive portal.
• The Motive portal runs Tl. S 1 2
• Newer browser versions encounter security errors that cannot be bypassed
• Certain websites cause unexpected re directs
Which of the following mow likely explains this behavior?


A. The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated


B. Employment of the HSTS setting is proliferating rapidly.


C. Allowed traffic rules are causing the NIPS to drop legitimate traffic


D. An attacker is redirecting supplicants to an evil twin WLAN.





A.
  The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated

The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here’s why: TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors.
HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection.
References:
By updating the TLS ciphers to modern, supported ones, the security engineer can ensure compatibility with newer browser versions and resolve the connectivity issues reported by users.

A security review revealed that not all of the client proxy traffic is being captured. Which of the following architectural changes best enables the capture of traffic for analysis?


A. Adding an additional proxy server to each segmented VLAN


B. Setting up a reverse proxy for client logging at the gateway


C. Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs


D. Enabling client device logging and system event auditing





C.
  Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs

Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs is the best architectural change to ensure that all client proxy traffic is captured for analysis. Here’s why:
Comprehensive Traffic Capture: A span port (or mirror port) on the perimeter firewall can capture all inbound and outbound traffic, including traffic that might bypass the proxy. This ensures that all network traffic is available for analysis. Centralized Logging: By capturing logs at the perimeter firewall, the organization can centralize logging and analysis, making it easier to detect and investigate anomalies.
Minimal Disruption: Implementing a span port is a non-intrusive method that does not require significant changes to the network architecture, thus minimizing disruption to existing services.
References:

An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?


A. SASE


B. CMDB


C. SBoM


D. SLM





B.
  CMDB

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification. ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management. "Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.

An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?


A. Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs


B. Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.


C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs


D. Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.





C.
  Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs

To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention. NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.
"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.

A developer needs to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique?


A. Key splitting


B. Key escrow


C. Key rotation


D. Key encryption


E. Key stretching





E.
  Key stretching

The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the cryptomodule is key stretching. Here's why:
Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.
Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.
Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to passwordcracking attacks.

A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?


A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set


B. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks


C. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production


D. Performing updates on code libraries before code development





A.
  Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set

To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of
false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.
"Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.

Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'


A. The HSM is outdated and no longer supported by the manufacturer


B. The vTPM was not properly initialized and is corrupt.


C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed


D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier


E. The HSM does not support sealing storage





D.
  The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier

The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
"BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation

An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?


A. SASE


B. CMDB


C. SBoM


D. SLM





B.
  CMDB


Explanation:

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.

"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.

A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?


A. Compliance tracking


B. Situational awareness


C. Change management


D. Quality assurance





C.
  Change management


Explanation:

To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.

"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.


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