Topic 5: Exam Pool E (NEW)
A user reports that, despite manually changing the date and time on a computer, the changes always revert after the computer is turned off for a period of time. Which of the following should the technician consider first?
A. OS updates
B. CMOS battery
C. NTP server
D. RAM
Explanation:
The CMOS battery powers the real-time clock (RTC) on the motherboard, which maintains the date and time when the computer is turned off. If the battery fails, the system will lose date and time settings, reverting to defaults on restart.
✑ Why Not A (OS updates): While OS updates can sometimes cause time issues,
they don’t typically affect changes persisting after shutdown.
✑ Why Not C (NTP server): An incorrect NTP server setting would cause the system to synchronize incorrectly, but this issue relates to time resetting during power-off.
✑ Why Not D (RAM): RAM is volatile memory and unrelated to storing persistent time settings.
A technician is upgrading a legacy wireless router for a home user. After installing the new router and configuring the SSID to be the same, none of the devices will connect to the network. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
A. OHCP pool configuration
B. MAC filtering list
C. Wireless protocol settings
D. ONS servers
Explanation: The technician should check the MAC filtering list next as the new router may
have a different MAC address than the old router.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification
Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 332
A company needs to secure remote user data with minimal interaction. Which of the following should the company do?
A. Configure self-encryptinghardware.
B. Update firewall rule sets.
C. Enable BIOS passwords.
D. Remove physical ROM drives.
Explanation: Self-encrypting hardware, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs), provides an effective solution for securing data with minimal user interaction. SEDs automatically encrypt all data stored on the drive without requiring any special software or user action, ensuring that data remains protected even if the drive is removed from the device. This feature is particularly beneficial for remote users who may not consistently follow manual encryption procedures, offering a seamless and user-transparent method to secure sensitive data.
Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud resources?
A. Resources provisioned instantly
B. Payments made only for resources that are used
C. Resources pooled to increase computing power
D. Implementation of rapid elasticity
Explanation: Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to payments made only for resources that are used. Cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-go model where customers are charged based on their usage of resources. Customers can easily scale up or down their usage of resources as per their needs and only pay for what they use. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 642)
Which of the following services is used to allocate IP addresses in an enterprise-wide environment?
A. DNS
B. Syslog
C. Telnet
D. DHCP
Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.
✑ Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.
✑ Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.
✑ Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.
Multiple organizations are working together on a project and want to migrate the data to the cloud. Which of the following cloud models should be used?
A. Public
B. Hybrid
C. Private
D. Community
Explanation: A community cloud is designed for multiple organizations with shared goals or projects, allowing collaboration while maintaining a level of privacy. This cloud model is ideal for the scenario where organizations are working together and need to migrate project-related data to the cloud.
✑ Why Not A (Public): Public cloud is shared among all users and lacks the
collaboration-specific features of a community cloud.
✑ Why Not B (Hybrid): Hybrid cloud combines public and private resources but is not tailored to multiple organizations working on a joint project.
✑ Why Not C (Private): Private cloud is exclusive to a single organization and unsuitable for collaboration among multiple entities.
Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?
A. SNMP
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. Telnet
Explanation: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext, which means the data is not encrypted and can be read by anyone who intercepts it. This makes FTP insecure for transferring sensitive information. SSH (Secure Shell), on the other hand, uses port 22 and encrypts data, making it more secure. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses ports 161/162 and is used to monitor network devices. Telnet uses port 23 and transfers data in cleartext, making it insecure. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 199
A user states that when docking a laptop, network drives are lost. However, when working wirelessly, network drives are present. While troubleshooting, a technician does not see any recent infrastructure changes and thinks the laptop has a bad network card. The technician orders a new laptop for the user and closes the ticket documenting the new laptop. After receiving the new laptop, the user still cannot access network drives when docked. Which of the following steps did the technician skip?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B. Establish a theory of probably cause.
C. Test the theory to determine cause.
D. Establish a plan of action.
Explanation: The technician failed to properly diagnose the issue by not establishing a theory of probable cause. Instead of investigating why the network drives were accessible wirelessly but not when docked, the technician assumed a faulty network card and ordered a new laptop. Proper troubleshooting involves developing a theory of what might be causing the problem, based on the symptoms and available information, and then testing that theory. In this case, the issue could have been related to docking station settings, network configurations, or hardware issues specific to the docking connection.
References: This answer is grounded in standard troubleshooting methodologies, which emphasize the importance of logically deducing the most likely cause of a problem before proceeding with more drastic measures such as replacing hardware.
A technician logs on to a PC and inserts an encrypted USB drive. When opening File Explorer, the technician cannot see the USB drive. Which of the following tools should the technician use to see all drives?
A. DiskPart
B. Diskmgmt
C. Disk Cleanup
D. BitLocker
Explanation: The tool that the technician should use to see all drives is Diskmgmt. Diskmgmt is a Windows utility that allows you to manage disk drives and partitions on your computer. It can be used to view all drives, including USB drives, that are connected to the computer12.
A technician receives a call from a user about a new USB 3.1 docking station. The user claims that their laptop does not charge when connected to the dock. The user confirms that the AC adapter for the dock is plugged in. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The dock is not designed to provide power passthrough.
B. The dock is only connected to a USB 3.0 port.
C. Proper drivers for the dock were not installed.
D. Too many accessories are plugged into the dock.
Explanation: If a laptop does not charge when connected to a USB 3.1 docking station despite the AC adapter being plugged in, the most likely reason is that the dock is not designed to provide power passthrough. This means that the dock's primary function is connectivity for peripherals rather than power delivery to the laptop. The other options are possible but less likely if the sole issue is the absence of charging functionality when the dock and its power supply are properly connected.
References: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) materials, which discuss the functionality and specifications of peripheral devices including docking stations.
A user reports that a PC occasionally falls to boot. The user reboots the PC. but the performance is degrading. The technician hears a strange, repetitive, ticking noise coming from the PC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Try to extract data.
B. Reseat the RAM modules
C. Inspect the fan
D. Check the CD tray.
Explanation: This is a safe and sensible option if you value your data more than anything else. You don’t want to risk losing your data by trying other methods that may worsen the situation. You can use a software tool or a service provider to recover your data before attempting any repairs.
A user wants to create a VM on a computer. Which of the following should the user check first?
A. Installed RAM amount
B. Hard drive space
C. BIOS CPU settings
D. Graphics card compatibility
Explanation: Before creating a virtual machine (VM) on a computer, it's crucial to ensure that the CPU supports virtualization and that this feature is enabled in the BIOS (or UEFI) settings. While sufficient RAM and hard drive space are also important for running VMs effectively, and compatibility with the graphics card might be a consideration for VMs with intensive graphical requirements, the foundational step is to verify that the CPU supports virtualization and that this feature is activated in the BIOS settings. This is because virtualization technology, often referred to as VT-x (on Intel CPUs) or AMD-V (on AMD CPUs), is a prerequisite for running most virtualization software efficiently.
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